Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 01:56
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Analyst sets date when Nvidia stock will hit $200 - Finbold
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Best Pokémon to Vote for in August 2025 Community Day (PvP Analysis) - Pokémon GO Hub
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What do you think about wearing sheer pantyhose?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.